If 0 < a and 0 < b, then 0 < a*b. THAT has to be part of the definition of < .
Either 1 > 0 or 1 < 0. (That follows directly from part of the definition too.)
In the latter case, 0 < -1.
Either way, 0 < 1*1 = (-1) * (-1) = 1.
Q.E.D.
2007-02-15 22:59:04
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answer #1
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answered by Curt Monash 7
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Should be 0.
2007-02-16 06:43:23
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answer #2
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answered by ImperfectPiinkiish♥ 5
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I believe the proof that 1 > 0 involves some fairly advanced set theory. The solution to this problem is the sort of thing that is taught at honours university level. And the proof for 1 + 1 = 2 is about 5 pages long. Sorry I can't be of more assistance.
2007-02-16 07:01:57
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answer #3
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answered by Spell Check! 3
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To prove 1 > 0.
We know that 5 > 4
so subtract by "4" on both sides
we get
5 - 4 > 4 - 4
1 > 0
Hence proved.
2007-02-16 06:59:23
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answer #4
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answered by Lucky 2
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assume that 0>1
subtract 1 from both sides
=> 0-1 > 1-1
=> -1 > 0
But we knw 0 is greater than negative
hense contradiction to what we assumed
so 0 < 1
(i just tried my math skills.....)
2007-02-16 07:03:32
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answer #5
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answered by Gopala K 1
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Well intelligent ques 2 ask !!! really u r one chap who got into depth of math!!! well of course d ans to dis ques doesn't lie in ny of ur txt buks!!! neither is it bcause 10>9 so we subtract 9 4m both side!!!! D ques ur askin doesn't come 4m theoritical mathematics but physical assumptions!!! like v assumed 2 denote a single distinguishable object by symbol '1'!!! nd moreover '0' was given 4 a null value so a single existing unit should b more in no. dan it !!!ny ways gr8 ques pal!!
2007-02-16 08:03:22
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answer #6
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answered by Prince 1
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that is same 0
2007-02-16 06:56:09
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answer #7
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answered by ravi 2
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i dont think there is any proof for that.. You may take that as an assumption or in math jargon a hypothesis..
If you do have a proof, pl post it here..
2007-02-16 06:44:00
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answer #8
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answered by Eshwar 3
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a>b <=>
exist u : strict positive number
and
b+u=a
in your case
a=1
b=0
u=1
:)
2007-02-16 07:05:03
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answer #9
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answered by Suiram 2
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