I mean possession without intent to sell (hypothetically; obviously this is tough to prove in real life). This is also assuming a person harms no-one by exposing them to the smoke or driving and operating machinery while intoxicated. Selling could definitely be considered harming someone else but how could using it yourself be unconstitutional then if you harm on-one but yourself? The cost incurred when NHS has to pay for your lung cancer treatment or psychosis? (these conditions are definitely cannabis induced in many cases
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2007-02-15
11:46:20
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics