In the 4th book how come harry doesn't get in trouble for the magic that Mr. Weasley performs? Also in the 5th book how come, he doesn't get in trouble for all the magic that the order of the pheonix used as they arrived at his house? According to Dumbledore, the ministry can only detect magic not who cast it so they shouldn't be able to tell that it was an overage wizard/witch who cast the spells.
2007-02-15
07:43:01
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6 answers
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asked by
ocelot577
1
in
Arts & Humanities
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