20th-century U.S. history seems to show that, in general, each generation is more permissive than the previous one. Things that were taboo for parents become more common-place for their children.
But, it seems to me that this can not be universal.
Can you name some societies and time-periods when the opposite was the case, so that I can know where to look to learn about the counter-examples?
Or, is my assumption completely off-base and the U.S. and/or the 20th-century are the abberation?
2007-02-14 16:57:59 · 5 answers · asked by infinityorzero 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
I think that to some extent, our elders like to pretend that they stood on the moral high ground, whether this is true or not.
It makes it look as if we are in a shaky, permissive society by comparison.
Statisics aside, do you think that in the past people did not have sex outside of marriage, get drunk, use drugs, etc?
No way. And the fact that the stats on those things have increased is evidence of a denser population, that's all.
It's an illusion used to try to keep the youngsters in line.
2007-02-21 06:21:32 · answer #1 · answered by Croa 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
basically uneducated rich kids are the problem. they think they are born better than the rest. they don't value beauty, but they value appearance ==> MTV generation.
Normally if you think about it most GREAT ppl are from the poor, or wasn't so lucky as a child
examples where "the case" is opposite......mmm.....Live Aid (than Wood Stock in 60s 70s because it doesnt involve drugs and it raises money to the poor); more charitable organisations; celebrities donate money to Africa more; we can fight off Breast Cancer; we dont tolerate Racism, Discrimination, Sexism; Violence anymore. We have help-lines (before we didn't). We have Oprah Winfrey. We have News on TV every 30 minutes. We have LIbrary at home ("internet"), etc.
2007-02-14 17:13:17 · answer #2 · answered by sunny 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The younger generation learns from the previous one and so, it cannot be more permissive until it knows more than its previous. This is a universal law.
2007-02-14 18:57:04 · answer #3 · answered by Miguel Angel R 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1930's... Prohibition
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1930%27s
2007-02-15 05:45:16 · answer #4 · answered by DeanPonders 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, it can't be that way forever, there would be no more standards anymore. I don't know if there is one that got gradually more restrictive, but i know that the puritans kind of jump started the restrictions here in the US and they kind of fluctuated.
2007-02-14 17:07:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋