West Virginia and Oklahoma have jutting panhandles that don't make sense in a rational world of boundary setting. The Civil War must had something to do with West Virginia's eastern protusion, the one in the northern part of the State seems absurd. Meanwhile, Oklahoma's panhandle totally baffles me. Any insights on how these came into being?
2007-02-14 06:38:28 · 3 answers · asked by Bill C 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
I don't know about West Virginia, but I think I can answer your question about Oklahoma, as I live there and have had Oklahoma history. The panhandle is not a dispute between states or anything like that. Before Oklahoma became a state in 1907, it was divided into several different Indian Territories, including the Five Civilized Tribes. The panhandle was between two different territories, and next to a state, and was claimed by no one. For this it was called "No Man's Land," or the Cherokee Strip, as it was assumed to be the Cherokee's. When Oklahoma came into statehood, the land was included in the boundaries. Hope that answers your question!
2007-02-14 07:57:22 · answer #1 · answered by K P 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sorry, but I do not have an answer to your question which is one of the best I have seen on this site in ages. I will be interested in the responses you get. GREAT question!!
Chow!!
2007-02-14 07:35:04 · answer #2 · answered by No one 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
go to the Smithsonian and start under Geology
2007-02-14 07:01:36 · answer #3 · answered by luckford2004 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋