Who had the right to vote in England, France, and Russia in the late 1700s and early 1800s?

Question

I am a teacher and am required to teach this in Massachusetts. It's interesting stuff, but I can't find the information online. I think I need the expertise of someone who knows their European history. I know that at the time, in America, white, male, Protestand property owners could vote, and that the religion and property requirements disappeared over the coming years. But who could vote in England, France, and Russia? Thanks!

Answer 1

During this peroid the UK had only a very small number of people had the vote. Although the Great Reform Act 1832 lead to the genral enfrachisment of the UK it was still small and democracy as we know it today didn't exist. Even the Reform Act of 1867 lead to only 8% of the population being eligible to vote. In the 1700 to early 1800's the right to vote in both counties and boroughs was restricted to men above the age of twenty-one, provided they met property qualifications. Those who owned property in multiple constituencies could vote multiple times; there was normally no requirement for an individual to actually inhabit a constituency in order to vote there
In France it was an absolute monarchy until the Revolution when a Legaslative assembly was set up. The Legislative Assembly would be made up of representatives elected by Electors, who themselves were elected by "active" citizens (an active citizen was a male citizen who paid annual taxes equal to the local wages paid for three days of labor). This meant that only half the citizens of France could vote and, in a country of 25 million people or so, only fifty thousand qualified to serve as either electors or members of the Legislative Assembly.
In Russia, again it was an absloute monarchy and it went against the Romanov principles to give up any power, as they felt they had the right to rule over the country. It wasn't until 1905 that Nicholas II agreed to a very weak Duma which would have been elected but he had the final say on its compisition and he could suspend the Duma at any time.

Answer 2

At the time, there were no elections in Russia. During the second half of the 19th Century only the people with certain amount of land could vote in municipal elections.

Answer 3

An uninformed guess: Landowners (men) in England; France was just in the throws of the Revolution - I doubt any elections were held! And Russia was probably still Czarist, so no elections anyway....

Answer 4

In Russia? Vote?? In that years there was a monarch in russia and there were no any voting.

Answer 5

upper class