2007-02-14 00:28:55 · 8 answers · asked by dallen3330 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The answer is 10 1/2
2007-02-14 00:35:20 · answer #1 · answered by brownie 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well, there are two ways to solve this: first, invert the denominator and multiply which gives 3/4 * 42/3, which equals 3*42 / 3*4 = 126/12 = 10+1/2. Second, multiply by forms of 1 and cancel like terms, multiply by 42/42 which gives a result of 3*42/4 over 3 (42 drops out of the denominator), now, there is a 3 which drops out which leaves 42/4 which reduces to 10+1/2. As you can see, inverting and multiplying is the easier of the two methods, but both correctly solve the problem.
2007-02-14 00:44:09 · answer #2 · answered by rowlfe 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This can be re-written as
3/4 * 42/3= (3*42)/(4*3) (as the threes cancel out) =42/4= 21/2 (dividing by two)=10.5
2007-02-14 00:34:06 · answer #3 · answered by The exclamation mark 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
see,
a/b= a X 1/b
let a=3/4
b= 3/42
therefore a/b= a X1/b
(3/4)/(3/42)= 3/4 X 1/(3/42)
= 3/ 4/( 42/3)
3 x 42/ 3 x 4
=42/4
=21/2
2007-02-14 00:40:08 · answer #4 · answered by srinu710 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
3/4 /3/42 = 3/4 * reciprocal of 3/42= 3/4 * 42/3=10.5 or 10/1/2
2007-02-14 00:33:19 · answer #5 · answered by CC 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
3/4 ÷ 3/42 =
3/4 x 42/3 =
126 / 12 =
21 / 2 =
10 .5
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2007-02-14 00:37:59 · answer #6 · answered by SAMUEL D 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
3/4*42/3
42/4=21/2 or 10 1/2
2007-02-14 03:27:15 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
(3/4) / -4 whilst dividing...its the comparable as multiply by utilizing the fraction of the 2d selection (i.e. 4 / 2 = 4 situations one million/2 = 2) so... we could purely substitute it (3/4) situations (one million/-4) Now purely multiply -3/sixteen
2016-12-17 16:07:33 · answer #8 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋