And, if it is due to the soundwaves(or whatever sensation) exciting a neurological stimulus, how would you account for the neurological states being resultant of an arbitrary stimulus, i.e. the physical properties of a language's sound waves are different. Thus neurologically speaking, the stimulus associated with the word "love" in the sound based neurosystem isn't the same across the spectrum of languages. Keep in mind that i'm talking about soundwaves, not brain-states.
What i'm saying is that though the stimulus is different, the result is the same. Further, what i'm trying to suggest is that emotion is arbitrary based on that fact, such that you're emotional state is your choice. There may be physical states related to love, but that doesn't have much to do with what i'm trying to say here, which is that the initial stimulus for that emotion is arbitrary; "Love" does not exist, it's just a soundwave. So, How can a person's words effect emotional status?
2007-02-13
17:35:17
·
2 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Psychology