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2007-02-13 05:35:11 · 15 answers · asked by bcake 1 in Society & Culture Royalty

15 answers

Usually, but not always. There is such a thing as a morganatic marriage when a king's wife remains a commoner. However this is not the case with Charles and Camilla. In law she *IS* the Princess of Wales (and will be Queen), but they have simply said she wishes to be known as Duchess of Cornwall, in deference to Diana's memory. George, the Prince of Wales's wife was still just Mrs Fitzherbert but as their marriage had not had the king's approval it was invalid.

However, in Britain a woman does not become 'Princess (her name)'. Sarah was The Princess Andrew, Duchess of York, and Sophie is The Princess Edward, even though nobody calls them that.

2007-02-13 06:37:00 · answer #1 · answered by Dunrobin 6 · 3 0

If a Prince marries a commoner, she is given the title Princess, but that is only by virtue of her marriage to him as hereditary titles are only passed down through the male side of the family. If a Princess marries a commoner, he is usually created a Lord. This is what happened when Princess Margaret (Queen Elizabeth's younger sister) married a photographer named Snowdon. He became Lord Snowden. Similarily, Princess Anne's husband is not a Prince, because he is not a 'Royal'. It isn't logical today, but in olden days, when they made up the rules, that's the way the world operated.

2016-05-24 05:44:45 · answer #2 · answered by Melissa 3 · 0 0

No. When Prince Andrew Married Sarah Ferguson she became the Duchess of York. Prince Edwards wife isn't a princess, neither is Prince Charles' wife.

2007-02-13 20:37:40 · answer #3 · answered by jemima 3 · 0 1

In England, yes. A woman takes the rank of her husband.
For example, even those Camilla, Duchess of Cornwall, doesn't use the title, she is still a princess.

Because of their places in the succession, the wives of Princes Andrew & Edward would be called Princess Andrew or Princess Edward (because of Engilsh custom) but because that sounds so odd, their wives use or used the princes' secondary titles.

In other European counrties, there are "morganic" marriages, where a woman of lesser rank does not take her husband's rank.

2007-02-13 09:11:50 · answer #4 · answered by Sandy Lou 4 · 0 0

Princess is the feminine form of prince (from Latin princeps, meaning principal citizen). Most often, the term has been used for the consort of a prince, or her daughters, women whose station in life depended on their relationship to a prince and who could be disowned and stripped of the title if he so chose.

For many centuries, the title "princess" was not regularly used for a monarch's daughter, who might simply be called "Lady" or a non-English equivalent.

As women have slowly gained more autonomy through European history, the title of princess has become simply the female counterpart of prince and does not necessarily imply being controlled or owned by a prince. In some cases then, a princess is the female hereditary head of state of a province or other significant area in her own right. The ancient meaning applies in Europe still to the extent that a female commoner who marries a prince will almost always become a princess, but a male commoner who marries a princess will almost never become a prince. The implication is that if the man held the equivalent masculine title, he would have rank over his wife without the necessary pedigree.

In many of Europe's royal families, a king would grant his heirs actual or theoretical principalities to train them for future kingship or to give them social rank. This practice has led over time to many people thinking that "prince" and "princess" are titles reserved for the immediate family of a king or queen. In fact, most princesses in history were not immediate members of a royal family but women who married into it. However there were many cases where a princess would choose someone outside of royalty to wed.

Widely used as a term of endearment, "princess" has also devolved in mostly American usage to mean any woman of exceptional popularity, such as the "princesses" of high school prom courts and beauty pagents.

Yet another take on the rising popularity of being a "princess" is the gentleness and refined composure associated with the title. It often conjures images of elegance and self control, and among the younger generations, is a depiction of all things feminine and lovely.

2007-02-13 05:39:01 · answer #5 · answered by dan 2 · 2 3

Jemima is wrong. Sarah and Sophie were/are, technically, The Princess Andrew and The Princess Edward, though the only UK princess by marriage known by such a title is Princess Michael of Kent, whose husband, unlike Andrew and Edward, does not have a peerage title.

2007-02-14 06:12:42 · answer #6 · answered by SB 2 · 0 0

Not in every case. Camilla Parker Bowles became the Dutchess of Cornwall, not the Princess of Wales when she married Prince Charles.

2007-02-13 05:45:42 · answer #7 · answered by Suzianne 7 · 3 1

Yes, usually but there are exceptions, Prince Edward(David was his real name) ,the son of Queen Mary,wanted to Marry Wallis Simpson. But the family disapproved,because she was divorced.When Edward became King ,they still would not give him permission to marry so he abdicated from the throne.He was granted the title of Duke which meant Wallis would be His Duchess.

2007-02-13 07:52:29 · answer #8 · answered by Lindsay Jane 6 · 1 0

Not always. Prince Charles' wife is not known as princess Camila

2007-02-13 16:47:00 · answer #9 · answered by old lady 7 · 0 0

yes she does become a princess and she might get to live in the castle or unless she already a princess then she will be his queen either way

2007-02-13 05:43:59 · answer #10 · answered by babynene2 2 · 1 0

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