If I have a number like, say, 20... is it a multiple of itself (in that it can be divided by itself with no remainder)? This should be easy for me to answer, myself, but my mind is drawing a big blank! Thanks for your help.
2007-02-13 01:29:05 · 8 answers · asked by prodaugh-internet 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Yep
2007-02-13 01:32:03 · answer #1 · answered by Karl 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, since 20 is a multiple of itself (20 = 20 x 1)
2007-02-13 09:34:15 · answer #2 · answered by williamh772 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why don't you try the division and see what happens?
20 ÷ 20 = 1, no remainder!
So yes, 20 is a multiple of 20. So are 40, 60, -20, -1980, 0, 100000, etc.
2007-02-13 09:32:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, 20/20 = 1
2007-02-13 09:32:33 · answer #4 · answered by Mathematica 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, 20 is a (very trivial) multiple of itself. 0 is (only slightly less trivally) a multiple of every number.
2007-02-13 09:34:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. If you multiply any Real number by 1, the answer is the Real number you began with.
2007-02-13 09:35:07 · answer #6 · answered by abgroove 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes,
as a multiples are all the numbers that appear in the times table.
eg multiples of 20 are 20,40,60,...
2007-02-13 09:58:20 · answer #7 · answered by aeronic 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
of course...any number will go into itself one time. no more no less
2007-02-13 09:51:59 · answer #8 · answered by kurrupt 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋