I need to know if there is a huge difference between what Locke says of being under absolute arbitrary power, and just 'absolute power'. Absolute talks about being under Monarchy rule. but Arbitrary is only mentioned under the chapter on 'slavery'. However, I have to define what Locke views as absolute arbitrary power. But if you ask me the chapters discussing the 'state of war' , under absolute monarchy, as well as the chapter on slavery can all be placed under 'absolute arbitrary power'.
What do you think.? People who only KNOW Locke should respond and who have actually read this book. Do not quote from other peices please. You'll only confuse me. the question should be answered at face value. thanks ;)
2007-02-12
16:34:20
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1 answers
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asked by
Jai247
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Government