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3 answers

If the elderly person has assets, those assets should be used for the person's care before public funds are used.

2007-02-12 10:15:16 · answer #1 · answered by Mama Pastafarian 7 · 0 0

I strongly disagree with both the answers given here for the following reasons.....

If the law says a person is entitle to a defined level of personal care, to be provided by their social services, then that person - regardless of their means - should receive that care free gratis as others with lesser means are entitled to .... social services is granted a ring-fenced amount by the government = solely for the purposes of providing care for the elderly......
Therefore then, if a person has been careful all their life and has accumulated a sum representative of their assets, why should they have to use this money to provide the care they need .... especially in light of others being less careful, spendthrift, or barely worked and therefore not contributed or contributed substantially less than they should have to the social fund pot - yet can still claim the benefit of social services providing personal care at the tax payers expense .....

It's time the people - and the government- whether in England, Scotland or Wales - made their mind up and treated everyone equally, either we are all entitled - or we are not entitled, full stop .... all this argy-bargy about means testing is just a whitewash for the inadequacies and failings and overspending of local councils and social services ...... they either provide the services they are bound to by law - or we should all get a refund on the taxes we paid in over the years and allowed to 'purchase' such services as we need - if we can afford them .....

2007-02-14 12:37:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

anything to do with care should always be tested

2007-02-12 16:44:38 · answer #3 · answered by DONNA M 4 · 0 0

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