If someone was to copy a dvd movie player onto their own dvd recorder, without ever distributing it or selling it to others. It is primarily for their own personal use. Isn't that still considered copyright infringement?? or am i just confused, b/c the way i think of it is that ur still doing it illegally, and getting the benefit of the doubt without actually paying for it. Any kind of help will be much appreciated. Thank you.
2007-02-12 03:17:21 · 2 answers · asked by Lovemylifefriendsfamily 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
If you copy a movie you do not own it is copyright infringement, even if it is not for monetary gain.
however, there is a narrow exception that you can make a backup copy of movies that you own.
2007-02-12 03:42:00 · answer #1 · answered by BigD 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it is but people still do it
2007-02-12 11:20:31 · answer #2 · answered by glamour04111 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋