A gay male (GM) and straight male (SM) are both living in the same house for more than a year.
GM is dicreet, dominant and high achiever and is older by about 5 years. SM is 22, very handsome, and works in one of GM's business associates company, upon GM's recommendation.
Things turn in different way when SM refuses to be affectionate to GM. GM feels sad and asks for more affection like touching while i bed. Both sleep in the same bed. SM gaps himself from GM saying he is taken advantaged off by GM. But GM does not think so. GM is just affectionate and all affections are done privately.
But why SM thinks that GM is taking advantage of him? Why does he refuse to give GM affections?
SM mentioned of a "neutral relationship". What does it mean if applied in this specific case?
GM helps SM sincerely, in fact the GM offers SM a place to stay without any payment, while working overseas. They do have sex because there was an agreement on this matter.
2007-02-12 01:55:52 · 4 answers · asked by neps365 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
GM should look for another GM and SM should stop whoring himself for a place to stay.
Neutral means no love/no sex/
2007-02-12 02:10:38 · answer #1 · answered by unclefrunk 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
GM is way out of line and should be punished.
2007-02-12 10:00:23 · answer #2 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am a GM and aggree with UncleFrunk wholeheartedly.
2007-02-14 12:29:08 · answer #3 · answered by Triskelion 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think "SM" is in denial. They are both queers of the first order.
2007-02-12 10:09:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋