why, or why not (provide sources)
2007-02-11 17:56:08 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Diop has been proven correct. Egypt is part of Africa . . . duh. Now Cleopatra and those of her leniage (Ptolemeic)are of Greek descent, which causes some confusion. Diop's work was controversial at the time to think such wonders were made by Africans.
2007-02-11 18:11:56 · answer #1 · answered by Billy Dee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
These rsponses are absurd and support only the white supremacist ideal! Egypt means "black" in greek! The earliest of descriptions in history from Europeans like Herodetus describe the Egyptians as black skinned and whoolly hair and all belonging to the same race! Never do Egyptians identify themselves ever in any historical artifact as white or even Assyrian or Asian, but only Nubian which also is land of black! Khemet the name of the Egyptian territory upper and lower into sudan, also means black in the native Coptic language! Stop you hating, it is futile and all things that where in the dark are now coming to light!!!!
2013-12-30 15:33:03 · answer #2 · answered by chris 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Proof of this is very sketchy, not nearly enough for acceptance in the world of science and history.
2007-02-12 02:28:31 · answer #3 · answered by bigjohn B 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋