if drug companies sell to foreigners, cheaper than to Americans?

Question

why isnt this discrimmination under the civil rights act, singling out one group for mistreatment, why are our politicians to gutless to file suit on these grounds against the fda and accuse them of civil rights discrimmination under color of law and using the rico statute to ask for crimminal penalties for conms[piracy to protect the people commiting the discrimmination.

i contend that it does come under the rico act a crimminal violation of civil right occurs when they attempt to uphold prices buy refusing to allow a state government ot negotiate price. in order to be crimminal intnet has to be shown just as the denial of equal education is crimminal so is the denial of life saving medications., especially when you factor in how many ex fda personnel now work for the drug companiers yes i content that the governemnt itself ins not immune fromprosecution if it is an agency of that body engaged in criminal conduct, just because some clown got hired by the fed does not mena they have carte blanch to crap on the population and a lot of us are mad as hell and dont want to take any more of this ball less leadership that cant bring itself to say enron and cant find a guy in a cave can tbeat third world street thugs and got elected as the lesser of two evils something this guy has not figured out iun 3 years.

Answer 1

What you are talking about is the fact that the U.S. is basically the only country without price controls on medications. Even Canada, Japan, and Mexico all have price controls imposed by the government. The problem is that the PMA (Pharmaceutical Manufacturers Association) is a huge PAC contributor to both party's election campaign funds and they like the system. Until we can institute price controls here in the U.S., this situation won't change.

By the way, this issue is not something under the jurisdiction of RICO statutes, but it's an interesting theory!!

Answer 2

There are a lot of factors at work. The biggest is supply and demand. In the US, we have accepted high drug costs. We have also restricted the supply by letting drug manufacturers retain patents and exclusive rights to treatments for a set period of time. So you have everyone wanting the latest and greatest drug, and only one supplier. In some foreign countries, they don't allow that, and new drugs are able to be sold as generics immediately. This creates a lot more supply for a smaller demand, thus a lower price.
Could this be considered discrimination? No. If they were only selling to certain groups within the US, then yes it would be. But the US goverment has little regulation on how companies market/sell/produce their products outside the country.

Answer 3

Don't you already know the answer to that?

It's because drug companies have a lot of money.

But also, lots of companies sell their product at different prices based on area. Like I don't think McDonalds sells a Quarter pounder with cheese meal for $5 in the Philippines. Companies charge what people can, and will, pay.

Answer 4

Keep dreaming friend; Drug Companies, and Government Officials sleep together.