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1±4i/8

the orignal problem was 4x² - 8x + 5=0

2007-02-11 14:40:33 · 4 answers · asked by iAmJustMe 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

4 answers

the 4i/8 reduces to i/2

2007-02-11 14:45:49 · answer #1 · answered by hayharbr 7 · 0 0

yes, 1+- i/2

because 4i/8=1i/2=i/2

2007-02-11 22:46:42 · answer #2 · answered by lalalalalala 3 · 0 0

yes, (4/8)i can be reduced to (1/2)i or i/2 so you get

1 ± i/2

2007-02-11 22:56:45 · answer #3 · answered by ♥Tom♥ 6 · 0 0

well im not sure thats what i would have gotten

2007-02-11 22:43:47 · answer #4 · answered by Britanie 3 · 0 2

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