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ive been trying to figure it out but i can find an answer.

2007-02-11 11:28:28 · 2 answers · asked by Oh2Lovely 3 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

Well, the Enlightenment that started in France caused the American Revolution, which then motivated France to start its revolution. Because of the increased industrialization worldwide, caused by the Industrial Revolution in England, more manufacturing occured and created new forms of communication, and new ways of industry (farms), other countries had to also use new forms of technology. Because Europe at this time was very powerful, they used controlled colonies on many areas of the world, including Latin America, which was also dominated by Spain, and Portugal, etc. These colonies' economies primarily used mining and agriculture to sustain the land. After a long time, this social inequality between farmers/peasants and the higher officials kind of forced them to revolt for independence.

Also, new ideas from the Revolution seemed very enticing for other countries and perhaps allowed them to fight for independence in order to also achieve freedom, rights, democracy, etc.

Hopefully this helps with your question.

2007-02-11 12:04:14 · answer #1 · answered by ♪Grillon♫ 3 · 0 0

essentialy it showed the weakness of teh Empires of Europe - if the populatoin rose up then the administration could not cope. For instance had Mexican people simply said - no more - to the spanish then theres only so many spanish in Mexico and millions of mexicans... simple numbers game.

I think it essentially provided a catalyst for the internal issues of Latin American areas to be brought to the forefront....

2007-02-11 11:32:21 · answer #2 · answered by max power 3 · 0 0

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