2007-02-11 04:26:25 · 22 answers · asked by linksysguy2918 1 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
In most jurisdictions, rape is a crime involving intercourse or penetration without valid consent by one of the parties.
Yes a man can be raped by a woman with an object or by undo consent. An example of this would be a woman anally raping a man or giving him a drug so that he passed out and she then sexually abused him
2007-02-11 06:35:24 · answer #1 · answered by Deirdre O 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
A woman can simply rape a man by holding his balls, or threaten to kick them. I have seen this many times as the man is afraid of the woman who does not have delicate balls. Or pretending to be pregnant when she is not.
2007-02-14 13:24:30 · answer #2 · answered by Lee 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
A woman rapes a man in more ways than one she doesent have to be physical because thats where she realizes she is weak.
But she rapes you for marrying her ,fathering her children,having dared to live a dream of being a team of two equal individuals.
A woman as we know is the tip of the ice berg and didn't one of the icebergs sink titanic ha ha ha ha .
2007-02-11 14:22:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
It can and does happen. Erection does not equal consent.
Most incidents people think of involve a girlfriend / wife mounting you in your sleep or when you are drunk. When it happened to me I considered it a violation, however it didn't concern me in the long term.
Serious incidents are extremely rare however drugs, either oral or injected exist to make totally involuntary sex possible. From what little writing I've come across the most known cases involve hospitals in the Middle East and India.
2007-02-11 16:41:29 · answer #4 · answered by Peter F 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes in three ways
1- by force. if you ever saw the fictional movie 'the smokers' a group of girls tackle men and rape them at gun point
2-mental intimidation. self explanitory
3-anally- this will involve force. but then again a guy could say 'keep your finger out of my butt' and she does it anyway- but that might not be rape as must as sexual misconduct
2007-02-11 19:59:19 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think there is a difference between taking advantage of a man and rape.
Both are possible. One would require more premeditation and preparation than the other. And a strong, almost sadistic desire for control or perhaps revenge.
It's possible... not likely, but possible.
Live well
2007-02-11 12:56:35 · answer #6 · answered by Jenny 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes
2007-02-11 13:15:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you ever get married, then you will know. My wife rapes me all the time. I start off my evening wanting to jam a little XBox 360. Next thing I know, I am busy stuffing the turkey, and I wanted to play a game or watch the TV for a while. Yeah, women rape men all the time. Its what they do.
2007-02-11 12:35:35 · answer #8 · answered by Fury 2 · 5⤊ 3⤋
Female-on-male rape certainly is possible, and women have been jailed for commiting it.
2007-02-11 18:07:29 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes if it is non- consensual sex and a woman can insert something into his behind like how a man would do it to another man
2007-02-11 13:05:29 · answer #10 · answered by Through_a_glass_darkly 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋