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2007-02-11 00:44:41 · 2 answers · asked by jimmy 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

Ok.... Mr. Kant said in "The Critique Of The Pure Reason" in a few words; there's Empirical Knowledge which we get from experience and there's also Pure knowledge; which has nothing to do with experience.

Kant is saying that Empirical Knowledge is a compound of experience and impression; this is all A Posteriori.

Then there's the case when knowledge is A Priori meaning before any experience at all. Then there's Pure and Impure A Priori. The Pure being the one that has no elements of experience whatsoever, none at all.

Then what Mr. Fichte says is that there's only Knowledge A Priori. Fichte totally rejects Realism, and for him, there's only one way, namely, Idealism.

Now, if you look closely at these two philosophical theories, you will see a very interesting difference of opinions based on religion and psychology....I think, both, Kant and Fichte, needed a shrink badly...!0!

Idealism says physical objects are ideas that exist only as they are perceived by human minds or by the mind of God as opossed to Realism; which says that the existence of everything does not depend on the awareness of it.

If a tree falls but there's nobody there to listen, will it make any sound?

2007-02-11 03:43:34 · answer #1 · answered by Alex 5 · 0 0

Some. Reviewed after your question. It's unfortunate his philosophical work got sidelined by Kant on one side and Hegel on the other, particularly the political philosophy he explored.

2007-02-11 01:59:11 · answer #2 · answered by mckenziecalhoun 7 · 0 0

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