Nice question. Muslims did not convert by force, while ruling Hindus in India.
2007-02-10 22:40:51
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answer #1
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answered by Zain 7
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The only way Muslims rule is by force. See Afghanistan.....there is a good example. Did you know a child would be beaten for flying a kite? Women and children were beaten for laughing? A woman is not allowed outside the home without a male escort. A woman cannot walk along a man? A man has the right to beat his wife and children? Little girls cannot attend school? Women cannot wear makeup? The list goes on....
Is that not ruling by force? Then why would Muslims be any different in India? They all follow the same books, the Qu'ran and the Ha'dith. So they all follow the same sheet of music.
2007-02-11 06:59:15
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answer #2
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answered by C J 6
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Muslims did not force conversion on all Hindus. Muslims were/are interested in sex with several women due to their sex urge. They lured Indian/Hindu ladies and produced lot of children. Even Akbar's favorite wife was a Hindu. The children were given Muslim Names. By this way the Muslim population grew in India.
Muslims, unlike Christians, did not offer any money or land or house, for conversion and forced it to some extent.
Though still Muslims are a minority in India, you will find their population is ever increasing or multiplying. In a highly or densely populated country like India the increase in Muslim population goes un-noticed. -
2007-02-15 02:15:37
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Muslims sort of ruled PARTS of India for about 700 years.Their rule did not extend south of Narmada river.
Aurangzeb came with full force to defeat Shivaji & win the Deccan Plateau. He never succeeded , and after 26 depressing yers, died broken hearted & was buried in Deccan only.
As for Islam, except for force can any sensible person embrace it ?And yet in India Muslims R in a minority , because Hindus far outnumbered them ab initio, and resisted muslims with full vigour.
Babur came to India with 7000 Muslim soldiers. Today the total no of Muslims in this sub Continent is--170 millions ( India) +180 millions (Paki) +180 millions ( BanglaDesh ) = 530 millions, and these are mostly descendants of forced converts from Hindu untouchables.
From 7000 to 530 millions is a far cry.
2007-02-11 08:44:02
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes they did force Hindus to get converted to Muslims. Either directly or indirectly. Indirect way was Zazia Tax levied by Akbar (The Great, phew).
I am not a practicing Hindu.
Muslims are in minority because the conversions were avoided by Hindus by their shear patience.
2007-02-11 10:53:12
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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This is an interesting part of human history
2007-02-13 09:28:19
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answer #6
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answered by Bionimetiket 2
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No, not at all dear....
You ruled India for many years but they ruled better than what you have been ruled now. Please read some history books.
2007-02-11 06:38:52
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Ya dude
2007-02-11 06:29:52
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answer #8
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answered by sankar 3
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