u hav to do it by "integration by parts" method
first the formula is
int: u dv = uv - int: v du
now about choosing u & v :
choose u by the following priority
LIATE
L - logarithmic functions
I - inverse trignometric fn.
A - algebraic fn.
T - trigonometric fn.
E - exponential fn.
(some tell the priority as ILATE)
so if you have x sinx dx
you choose u =x
&
dv = sinx dx
here in this case you have only one fn.
so take
u = ln x
differentiating
du = 1/x dx
&
take
v= dx
integrating
v= x
now using the formula
int ln x dx = x ln x - int : x / x dx
= x ln x - int: dx
= x ln x - x
2007-02-10 22:24:15
·
answer #1
·
answered by usp 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
There is a "trick" involved in this solution.
The "trick" is to multiply by 1.
Consider the integral I = ∫ lnX .1 dX
Integrate by parts where;-
u = log X and dv/dX = 1
du / dX = 1/X and v = X
I = ln X . X - ∫ X. 1/X dX
I = ln X . X - ∫ 1 dX
I = X ln X - X + C which is required answer.
2007-02-10 22:58:39
·
answer #2
·
answered by Como 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
I believe it is integration by parts(from the answer, it appears that way)
let u=___ and dv= ___ dx, from there you find du=______dx and v=______.
Plug the numbers into the following.
uv-(the integral of)v du
do the integral of v du, and you've go the answer.
If you have a text book, look up inegration by parts, I am sure it explains this in more detail and is much more clear.
2007-02-10 22:33:23
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
i'd say structure is area of engineering which signifies that an effective draw close on math is major, pre-cal is is like algebra to the subsequent aspect with the Pi chart and understanding about radians and perspective measures (which looks major) yet Calculus is the learn of derivatives, (the slope of a line at a particular aspect) type of unnecessary no count number what container of workd your going to, in case you question me.
2016-12-04 00:59:43
·
answer #4
·
answered by kobielnik 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
you need to integrate by parts.
int lnx d/dx(x) dx
= xlnx - int x * 1/x .dx
= xlnx - int 1 dx
= xlnx - x + C
2007-02-10 22:21:12
·
answer #5
·
answered by aeronic 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
let y = ln(x) therefore dy = (1/x)dx so dx = xdy = exp(y)dy
so we have INT(ln(x)dx) = INT(yexp(y)dy)
Now use integration by part and solve
2007-02-10 23:04:50
·
answer #6
·
answered by ? 7
·
0⤊
0⤋