Here it is:
Taxation without representation was in fact enforced against poor by the wealthy, not just the British to the colonies.
2007-02-10 15:27:06 · 3 answers · asked by sportzman1991 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
That is a really good thesis. I'd use the feudal system (more in England) to prove the point of wealthy vs. poor and how the farmers who worked the land barely got enough to eat when taxed off of the food they planted on the nobles' land. Also point out that they had no voice in any discussion because what the noble ruled was law to them. Also use the French (prior French revolution, they were taxed so Marie Antionette could gamble and party) as an example. Good luck!
2007-02-10 15:35:58 · answer #1 · answered by ladyselenity0 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's not grammatically correct, but it is an arguable thesis.
enforced against the poor by the wealthy,
not just against the colonies by the British would be better.
2007-02-10 23:35:20 · answer #2 · answered by Vegan 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
LMAO!!!
nice thesis...
I would argue that that is at least in part correct.
2007-02-10 23:51:07 · answer #3 · answered by max power 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋