My class is using the 2003 case of Goodridge v. Department of Public Health to discuss the legality of same-sex marriages The basis for the ruling against same-sex marriage was the long-standing tradition of a union occurring between a man and a woman only. However, the Court did not call for the State of Massachusetts to prove that it had a viable interest in the matter (due process clause)...what basis do you think should be used in such cases?
2007-02-10 08:47:15 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I couldn't find the case on line. Are you sure it was due process case? If it was, I would suspect that the state has a strong possibly compelling interest. Thus the the legislation would receive minimal scrutiny.
2007-02-10 09:50:14 · answer #1 · answered by Cracker 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do your own civics class homework and think for yourself!!!!!!
Just call me too tired of answering everyone's homework questions.
2007-02-10 16:51:51 · answer #2 · answered by ttpawpaw 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋