There is a debate about the question as to when did Jesus fully know He was God. Did He know before His resurrection or after?
If after, then He fully experienced what it means to be human when He asked God why God had forsaken Him. The fact that He continued to say, "But not My will, but Yours," is proof that even if He as not certain before the Resurrection, He was still willing to trust God, in spite of what was happening to Him.
2007-02-10 02:42:04
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answer #1
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answered by Mary W 5
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Jesus throughout his ministry referenced the "Bible" he had....namely the Old Testament as proof he was/is the Messiah. The "why hast thou forsaken me" verse is pointing back to one of the prophetic psalms written by David fortelling the coming and manner of death of the Messiah. It's an Old Testament quote. The jews at the time would have recognized it. Us gentiles lose something because we are not familiar with jewish culture or traditions. It also indicated that God the Father was then turning His back on sin...therefore on Jesus....fulfilling His nature of being unable to look on sin and proving Jesus was paying the price.
2007-02-10 03:10:49
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answer #2
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answered by sheepinarowboat 4
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No, it was because HE WAS the Messiah that he was able to say these words. The Bible tells us that Jesus, who knew no sin, became sin for us on the cross thereby paying the penalty for the sins of the world. Then He rose from the dead proving once again that He was the true Messiah and now had victory of sin and death. All we need now is to trust in His sacrifice and accept His free gift of salvation... have you done that?
2007-02-10 04:01:25
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answer #3
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answered by Blessed 5
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At that time He was carryiong the guilt of all mankind and felt cut off from His Father
He is quoting Psalm 22 verse 1. (Worth reading the whole chapter, it portarys what was happening to Jesus)
It happened precisely because He WAS the Messiah, and the price had to be paid.
2007-02-10 02:41:22
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answer #4
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answered by alan h 1
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No it's because for those moments Jesus had the sin of the whole world on him and God the father couldn't look on him and that ment for those moments their fellowship was broken. And because this was so awful and the weight of sin that he took on that was in fact man kinds sin and so bad he was completely lost and broken. He died in more ways than one and that's why he cried out. But the good news is that he died for our sin and met all the criteria for us NOT to be out of fellowship and separated from God. So he is the only way back and MOST defiantly the Messiah.
he then set the captives free and rose again.
2007-02-10 02:42:02
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answer #5
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answered by : 6
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Maybe Jesus did not understand why his Father was allowing such cruelty to happen, thinking God could stop the Romans, instead of fully realising his Father had offered the world his precious son, to show the people how cruelly the soldiers etc., treat God?
2007-02-10 02:41:45
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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It's because He was flesh just like you and me.... He also said the night before his death as he was praying "Father if you are willing take this cup from me, yet not my will but your be done..." Jesus knew what he was about to go through and he being human would have to suffer the pain of a torturous death... Even so he died for you and I.... Isn't that wonderful!!!!
2007-02-10 02:47:11
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answer #7
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answered by B-E-B 3
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It shows that he was in every way human and having a human experience all of it pain, doubt, fear. He experienced all of what humanity is and that is why we identify with Jesus.. People trust people who have walked in there own shoes. It would be know good if he was faking it now would it. No one knows for sure what he said the Gospels were written many years after his death they don't tell us what happened when he was alive they tell us the meaning of what his life was.They tell us what his life meant.
2007-02-10 02:46:20
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answer #8
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answered by Rich 5
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As Jesus was dying on the torture stake, about the ninth hour, or about 3:00 p.m., he called out: “E´li, E´li, la´ma sa·bach·tha´ni?” (“My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”) (Mt 27:46; Mr 15:34) Bystanders thought that he was calling for Elijah. Perhaps they misunderstood Jesus’ words because his speech was indistinct as a result of his intense suffering or because his dialect differed from theirs. (Mt 27:47; Mr 15:35) In calling out to his heavenly Father, acknowledging him as his God, Jesus fulfilled Psalm 22:1 For he sensed that his Father withdrew protection from him to allow his integrity to be tested to the limit.
2007-02-10 02:39:54
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answer #9
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answered by hollymichal 6
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That was actually a mistranslation. According to the Lamsa translation he really said, " My God, my God, for this I was kept!" This is the Armaic translation which makes much more sense.
2007-02-10 02:41:14
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answer #10
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answered by MeanKitty 6
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