it take the other side of the pole to move? At exactly the same time, or will there be a delay? If so, how long would the delay be?
2007-02-09
16:58:51
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7 answers
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Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
Also considering there is an axis for turning in the midst of it.
2007-02-09
17:01:31 ·
update #1
Well smci, consider perhaps a metal pole tied to a tree, by a small string around its center, such that you can spin the pole around by pressing on side. But instead, if this pole was many miles longer (not considering friction and other things) and if one presses one end, would the other spin at exactly the same time. The question should reveal the wave/particle duality of the nature of matter, kind of like when you hit a wave in a water, it takes only so many seconds to reach the other end. In this case, the entire pole, of metal, is connect at both ends. We can't possibly assume that, even if the pole was 500 miles long, the other side would move at exactly the same time. It seems there should be a means of transmission of force which in a sense isn't instantaneously, but rather would have delay revealing wave/particle duality of matter. If it is true, then there should be one (a delay), great answer.
2007-02-09
17:42:19 ·
update #2
assuming the pole was solid and you had the strenght to move it I'd say the other side would move at the same time. It's size is irrelevant.
2007-02-09 17:05:36
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answer #1
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answered by velcroboy15 4
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You didn't say whether the pole was vertical, lying flat, planted I the ground or whatever, and whether we pushed it along its longitudinal axis, perpendicular or something else.
Firstly you need a helluva push, because if it's that large, no matter how you push it then the opposing friction forces will be huge.
So assuming the force you apply is large enough to overcome the static friction, then it depends on the material it's made of - metal, concrete, plastic, rubber, what?
F_friction = μ R where R =W = mg is the reaction force of the ground, and is equal to the weight. Coefficient of static friction(μ) ~0.2-1.0.
So F_friction = μ mg is going to be huge, so you may cause no resultant force at all.
If you poke it off-center, then yes some of the force translates into a moment about the center-of-gravity. Again, you might not get rotation, as there will be big friction forces/moments.
Lastly, the perpendicular component of the force you apply could cause compression, it depends on the coefficient of elasticity of the pole material.
(I think the best way to phrase your question would be in terms of impulse rather than force - an impulse is an instantaneous quantity).
2007-02-09 17:05:12
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answer #2
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answered by smci 7
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IF there was no friction, it should move automatically. But since everything on earth has friction, it would take quite a while to get the pole to start moving. I'm not exactly sure how long it would take, but it would eventually move since the force on the one side would correspond to a change in forces so therefore some acceleration has to go on due to Newton's laws.
2007-02-09 17:07:46
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answer #3
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answered by angel1219us 2
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This is not so much a problem of friction, or time-differential of forces, but rather of the measuring devices being syncronized, and in what degree, and manner. Although the fomerly mentioned contributers of the equation would directly impact how one might consider measuring them relative to the two or more time pieces being used for the two or more localities.
The above is only true in relatively, because a Whole/Universal-Scale quantum reality would require that nothing actually have happened, as the appearances of happening are merely an artifact of relativity itself.
As Socrates said after pointing to all the flaws of his contemporaries' notion of reality, in some recognition of the one whose notion was not disprovable "Parmenides, alone among the wise, has said nothing moves..."
In like manner consider how it is that light is the contrast of space, and movement the contrast of stillness. The former parts are only apparent due to the latter, and are relative, while the latter is in fact absolute in this way, that left and right are relative, whilte absolute stillness contain neither left nor right, but may potentially engerder them, if they were to exist is another appearance of reality. For in relativity only motion happens, as Einstien said "Nothing happens until something moves.", even relative stillness is motion compared to the rest while absolute still ness has no comparison except to say it is not defined by motion.
There have been Nobel prizes won for saying the same thing as Socrates and Parmenides...
Apllied physics only works in states of relativity (even [finite-scale] quantum mechanics is hindered by it, or the thinking in those terms, in some sense) because the "two" "worlds" are not directly applicable to each other, as understood today, except as theory, philosophy and religion. Especially the latter is something apllied physicist loathe to consider, and vice versa, though whatever is true, and encompasses the understanding of both fully, must untimately be the lasting and unaltered Truth.
2007-02-09 18:14:38
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answer #4
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answered by Gravitar or not... 5
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The speed at which the disturbance travels along the pole depends upon the density and compressibility of the material of the pole.
2007-02-09 17:12:23
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answer #5
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answered by Pearlsawme 7
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The push will propagate through the pole at the speed of sound, which (depending on the pole material) is significantly faster than the speed of sound in air.
2007-02-09 17:12:24
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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I believe you mean "end" not side, but it would move at the same time if it is wood, steel or the like, but if it was rubber and being that big would be a differant thing..
2007-02-09 17:10:12
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answer #7
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answered by xyz 6
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