∑_n=1 , ∞; 1/(ln n)^ln n. Is it convergent or divergent? Here's a soution from my friend, (ln n)^ln n = [e^ln ln n]^ln n = (e^ln n) ^lnlnn and ln ln n -> ∞ as n-> ∞, so ln ln n >2 for sufficiently large n. For these the n we have (ln n)^ln n > n^2 so taking the reciprocal n^2 would be larger. Since 1/n^2 converges by p-series so does 1/(ln n)^ln n by the comparison test. I can't seem to understand what the relationship is and can someone explain how to get this (ln n)^ln n > n^2 ? Thanks in advance!
2007-02-09
14:55:43
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3 answers
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asked by
jamirshakur
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics