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Somehow, you need to use substitution - I think arctanx should come into it somehow...

2007-02-09 13:33:36 · 2 answers · asked by lucy s 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

Proof of why this definite integral is 0:

Let x be negative -x. Then we have

Sin(-x) / 1+(-x)^2 = -Sin(x) / 1+x^2 = - ( Sin(x) / 1+x^2 )

That proves that it has reflexive symmetry about the origin (0,0), so that the area from x = 0 to -1 is negative of the area from x = 0 to 1. Hence, the total 0.

I don't even have to bother finding the indefinite integral.

2007-02-09 13:54:35 · answer #1 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 1 0

Good thinking, but I'm not seeing it.

If y = arctan x, we have the integral of sin(tan(y))dy

That would have to be some kind of chain rule special with convenient cancellations, I would think, but nothing is jumping to mind.

EDIT: Ooh. Caught me napping. Yeah. It's zero.

2007-02-09 13:55:28 · answer #2 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0 0

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