The beltway parties buy votes by using fiscal and monetary policy to achieve " zero unemployment with price stability".
In order to stop this, the Federal Reserve act of 1913, along with the 16th amendment need to be repealed.
Have American citizen/taxpayer/voters become too factionalized into camps of left and right for this to occur?
2007-02-09 06:26:19 · 4 answers · asked by csn0331 3 in Social Science ➔ Economics
I'm not sure the Federal Reserve act or the 16th amendment have anything to do with the "welfare state", regardless of what your interpretation of that might be (whether corporate or charitable). However, this was part of your statement, not your question. Are we too factionalized to achieve reforms, regardless of what those reforms are? Yes, I agree that we are. Politics is nothing but mud slinging and butt kissing by the left and right, two wings of the same vulture. And as you know, this is not conducive to conducting business or instigating reforms.
I also disagree that repealing the income tax would help anyone at this point. I think a better, less drastic and thus more like to be received reform would be a flat tax with no breaks or loopholes.
2007-02-09 08:06:15 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well taxes are needed. Do you have a better way to fund the government? Also, it is the government fault that people are on welfare. They need to work with the those adult men and women to find better employment.
2007-02-09 14:37:09 · answer #2 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why would anyone want "NON-zero unemployment with price INstability"?
2007-02-09 23:46:44 · answer #3 · answered by meg 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what is wefare ?
2007-02-09 14:34:09 · answer #4 · answered by J 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋