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2007-02-09 02:26:05 · 5 answers · asked by ellejare 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

because the power on the top equal the power on the bottom so
on the top i add 1 and minus 1( didnt matter right? because you add 1 and minus 1 so that is 0)
on the top: x^2 +1-1
(x^2+1)-1
ok now
[(x^2+1)-1]/(x^2+1)
(x^2+1)/(x^2+1) -1/(x^2+1)
(by separate the fraction rule)
so
1-1/(x^2+1)
take integral of that
int(1-1/(x^2+1)dx)
use the rule of antiderivative
so int(1dx)-int(1/(x^2+1))
x-arctanx+C
(arctanx = tan^-1x or inverse tanx)
solution is x-arctanx+C
good luck.

2007-02-09 02:38:45 · answer #1 · answered by Helper 6 · 0 1

very easy question

just apply numerator/denominator=questient+remainder/denominator

answer will be x - tanx +c

there is one more method add subtract numeror 1 and solve

u will get

integration of 1 dx - integration of 1/x^2+1

which on integration give back

x- tanx + c

2007-02-09 10:36:41 · answer #2 · answered by n nitant 3 · 0 0

split into:
integral of{[(1+x^2)/(1+x^2)]dx} - integral of [dx/(1+x^2)]
=integral of dx- integral of[dx/1+x^2]
=x-tan inverse(x)

2007-02-09 10:37:24 · answer #3 · answered by s_d_sondhi 2 · 0 1

x^3/3+x^5/5+constant

2007-02-09 11:27:30 · answer #4 · answered by sarath v 1 · 0 0

And the answer is (envelope pls): x-arctanx

Have a nice weekend.....

2007-02-09 10:35:09 · answer #5 · answered by RWPOW 2 · 0 1

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