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6 answers

to show the work, you would say that the first time, you've got a 50% chance, each time after that, you've got a 50% of the previous 50% chance so your answer is
.5 to the fifth power
which is .5 times .5 times .5 times .5 times .5 .
answer is 0.03125 which is 3.123 percent chance
so you have a 3.123 in every 100 chance that that will happen.
so really, if you flip the coin 5 times and do that 100 different times, there will be approximately three times that you lands on heads (or tails) on flip 1,2,3,4 and 5. that is the most complete answer possible.

2007-02-08 19:24:31 · answer #1 · answered by ? 2 · 0 1

1/2^5 = 1/32

2007-02-08 19:23:35 · answer #2 · answered by Rhul s 2 · 1 0

the odds are (1/2)^5, which is 1/32

2007-02-08 19:19:31 · answer #3 · answered by ravensfan5252 3 · 1 0

let p=prob. of getting heads in 1 toss and q=tails
therefore p=1/2 and q=1/2
P(X=5)=C(5,5)(1/2)^5(1/2)^0
=1*1/32
=1/32

2007-02-08 19:20:10 · answer #4 · answered by SS 2 · 2 0

The probability when a coin being toss:
P(tail)=1/2
P(head)=1/2

P(H,H,H,H,H)=1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2
=1/32

2007-02-08 20:46:49 · answer #5 · answered by memberaniku 1 · 1 0

1 in 32
i

2007-02-08 19:19:16 · answer #6 · answered by ilikeatosayhollycrap 4 · 1 0

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