How do you rationalize this: 1/√π......?

Question

I believe the answer is √π/π but it might be a trick question.. Anyone know the answer?

o and plz show the process of how you figured it out.. thnx

Answer 1

The answer is right
(1/√π)* (√π/√π)=
(√π/π)
It is the same as rationalizing other roots in the denominator. π is still a number it is just irrational so we use a symbol to represent it.

Answer 2

This is a trick question. To rationalise an expression means to convert it to an expresssion with a rational denominator. Even if you multiply top and bottom by sqrt pi the denominatior is still an irrational number.
The problem is that pi is a transcendental irrational number, while irrational numbers represented by surds are algebraic irrational numbers.
The closest thing you could come to truly rationalising this expression would be to go from sqrt oi / pi as others have suggested, and then replace the pi in the denominator with a series expansion of rational numbers such
4(1 - 1/3 + 1/5 - 1/7 ...)
or of you dont' like that one, there are others such as those you'll find at...
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PiFormulas.html

Answer 3

You can't rationalize the expression because π is irrational, as is its square root. (Of course that applies to most square roots as well, so (√π)/π makes some people happier.)

Answer 4

the basic funda of rationalizing is that we need to multiply numerator and the denomenator by the sq.root value which is in denomenator.thus multiply N^r AND D^r by sq.root pie.the ans. is:sq.rootpie/pie.but the answer should probably be:sq.root154/22

Answer 5

YOUR ANSWER FOR THE FRACTION IS CORRECT. BUT I THINK YOU ARE ALSO CORRECT THAT THIS MAY BE A TRICK QUESTION. RATIONALIZING A FRACTION MEANS CHANGE THE FRACTION SO THAT THE DENOMINATOR IS RATIONAL. BUT PI IS IRRATIONAL, SO THE DENOMINATOR IS STILL NOT RATIONAL.

Answer 6

You are right, just multiply top and bottom by square root of pie.