I am 50% effaced and 0% dialated. Does it mean I am closer to having my baby the more effaced I am or the more dialated. I hear of people being dialated and not effaced all the time, but never the other way around. Could I expect a baby this week?
2007-02-08 12:28:19 · 5 answers · asked by Rosemary 2 in Pregnancy & Parenting ➔ Pregnancy
I walked around 50% effaced and 3 cm dialated for a couple weeks with my first one.
You will have a baby, but unfortunately, how dialated and effaced you are is no indication of when. Sorry.
Get some sleep and enjoy these last few days. You've got a marathon ahead of you!
2007-02-08 13:02:37 · answer #1 · answered by Amy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Effacement is the thinning of the cervix. If you aren't dilated or having any other symptoms, I don't think you'll have the baby very soon. The change in effacement could be due to the position of the baby in the uterus. I was 100% effaced by 32 weeks because my baby was head first and very very low down in the pelvis.
Best of luck to you!
2007-02-08 13:10:22 · answer #2 · answered by Mary 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Effaced just means that the baby is in position, dialated means your baby is pushing down thining out the membranes opening you.
How far allong are you?
I was 100% effaced and 60% dialated when I went into labor, hard labor. It is a good sign & that your getting closer to delivering. Good Luck!
2007-02-08 12:45:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Could be 1-2 weeks. The effaced needs to be100% before dilation occurs. Good luck....sex helps speeds up the process. I have 4 kids...take it from someone that knows.
2007-02-08 12:36:19 · answer #4 · answered by Sheila 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
you will complete your effacement before your dilation but you need both to start second stage of labor. so you will start to dilate later and this will be close to labor than effacement. good luck
2007-02-08 13:39:12 · answer #5 · answered by leem 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋