How can an object thats moving at a constant velocity be in equilibrium if in order for it to be in equilibrium the net force has to be 0?
I think it has something to do with equal and opposite and equilibrant but im not sure and it's confusing...
2007-02-08 11:58:50 · 7 answers · asked by Liz 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Jerry is correct.
F=ma. If a velocity is constant, that means there is no acceleration. if there is no acceleration:
F=m(0) which of course: F=0.
Also know this is true for any system, not just in a vacuum. While there may be forces acting upon it, if there is no acceleration, there is no NET Force, and thats the question you are asking.
edit: also keep in mind, i cant vote on right or wrong yet, but the poster right ahead of me is 100 percent incorrect. if there is a constant net force, the object HAS to be moving. Don't let his answer confuse you.
2007-02-08 12:12:56 · answer #1 · answered by Tyler 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Equilibrium means, nothing's changing. You need an agent to break an equilibrium. Here the agent is force.
The moving body is in equilibrium under force, if nothing changes under influence of force.
That is,it's velocity's constant. On the other hand, force induces acceleration, in other words, changes velocity. But in this case, there's no influence of force on that motion. Thats why this is said to be in equilibrium.
2007-02-08 20:06:23 · answer #2 · answered by The madman who makes people fly 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Net force is not zero. The force moving the car forward is constant and greater than the force resisting motion - i.e. friction from road + air.
I'm not sure if you can call this equilibrium - but anyway net force is not 0. When nte force = 0, there is usually no motion.
2007-02-08 20:09:39 · answer #3 · answered by JiveSly 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
That is because force is proportional to acceleration.
Acceleration is rate of change in velocity. If the velocity is constant, then the rate of change of velocity is zero, and so acceleration is zero, and so net force is zero.
2007-02-08 20:01:20 · answer #4 · answered by Jerry P 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The only way for that to be true is in a vacuum where you will have no drag. it would also have to be in a true no G environment so that it would not be acted upon by an outside force that would disturb the = . Hope that helps.
2007-02-08 20:04:19 · answer #5 · answered by kb3hmj 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
You got the wrong Newton's law
Try:
An object in motion stays in motion (that's equilibium) unless a force acts on it.
2007-02-08 20:02:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
If it is not accelerating, there are no forces acting on it... (acceleration includes decceleration)...
2007-02-08 20:07:10 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋