Other then cheating,a medical problem,depression,stress from work and erection problems(I know none of this stuff was going on)why would a happily married man age 41 at the time who has a VERY willing wife and who he is still attracted to her(and yes he is) go 2 months of no sex with her and not intiate at all and says he couldnt give her a reason for no sex for 2 months.Been happily married 16 yrs and this happened a yr ago and everything has been back to normal just curious about what other people have to say about this and no he wasnt cheating and no im NOT in denial or being naive cause after being married to this wonderful man for 16 yrs i think i know him well enough to say that he would never cheat..so dont start the cheating crap like everybody does when they answer questions like this from married people..
2007-02-08 08:37:32 · 1 answers · asked by lisa c 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
There are times when a man is simply preoccupied. Maybe it was something pressuring him from work. Maybe he was just feeling distracted, or overwhelmed. If it has return to normal, then I would not worry about it. Sometimes men just have ups and downs (no pun intended)--especially as they get older. I would just focus on the fact that you have a good marriage. Besides, a good marriage is so much more than just sex.
2007-02-08 22:06:33 · answer #1 · answered by Arlene06 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋