Everywhere on the internet they say that used perfectly , condoms are only 98% effective . But they don`t say why , is it because some of them have fabrication errors ? or why ?
2007-02-08 06:48:04 · 6 answers · asked by radu 1 in Health ➔ General Health Care ➔ Other - General Health Care
Because there is still that 2% chance......like, it might break. And even the tiniest tear, smaller than a pin prick will cause the semen to leak out. Just think, if they said it was 100% effective and someone gets pregnant.......there can be some law suits. So it also has to do with "covering their a**". Nothing is 100% in this world. Not even juices with 100% juice written on the front. Read the fine ingredients.
2007-02-08 06:59:37 · answer #1 · answered by Meuy V 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
haven't you ever heard of people joking about ripped condoms, like that's how some kids happen. it's not just a joke. i think its funny when a partially bald guy's head is refered to as a ripped condom.(just thought i'd throw that in there). also like the person before me said, they can slip off.
2007-02-08 14:57:50 · answer #2 · answered by combatrocker88 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be interesting to know how they determined that statistic, and whether there was any experimental or other evidence involved. But perhaps it is just that the manufacturer's wish to protect themselves from lawsuits.
2007-02-08 14:58:37 · answer #3 · answered by Always Hopeful 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They can break or slip off. hence the 98% number.
2007-02-08 14:50:59 · answer #4 · answered by tchem75 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because they can rip or tear if they aren't used properly.
2007-02-08 14:55:22 · answer #5 · answered by Michael 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there is a chance that they can break even if you put it on correctly.miscarriage
2007-02-08 14:58:29 · answer #6 · answered by jamie F. 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋