that is why people sell the house. 1/2 yours. 1/2 his.
2007-02-07 23:10:15
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Debts and credit reports are in One person's name only, unless you apply for a loan jointly. Any past debts prior to marriage especially is solely that person's debt, as a rule.
In some States you can file bankruptcy for one person and it will not affect the spouse's credit. However it also depends on what the debt is for, when it became in effect, etc. But each state also does things differently.
If things are over-whelming, (you won't get an accurate answer on here) I would encourage you to contact a lawyer.
2007-02-08 01:20:32
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answer #2
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answered by Erica, AKA Stretch 6
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No.
The house, regardless of whose name it's in, is the family home.
If one partner is in debt, the house cannot be repossessed, as it belongs to both partners, and putting the solvent partner on the street is not legal practice.
2007-02-07 23:16:15
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answer #3
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answered by savs 6
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Your question is in two parts. If the property is in her name, it is hers and cannot be touched to settle your debts. However linked addresses can reflect on credit ratings, but your credit rating will only become bad if you default. The easy answer therefore is not to default!
2016-05-24 06:12:16
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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your spouse is responsible for his debts but if they die than creditors can make a claim on the estate which would include an house if they were the owner or part owner not if it is your house.
2007-02-08 00:23:39
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answer #5
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answered by frankturk50 6
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The debt is in the name of the debtor and is not obliged to be paid by a spouse
2007-02-07 23:11:37
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answer #6
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answered by Sir Sidney Snot 6
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I think the debts are substracted from your spouse's assets if he dies...which could mean half your house. If you married him when he was in debt, the debts should remain in his name.
2007-02-07 23:14:19
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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it depends, if your partner had a loan and had it secured on your house or not, if not then it is in the persons name that took the loan/credit card or whatever
2007-02-07 23:18:33
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answer #8
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answered by jojo78 5
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if the house is in your spouse's name but even so you are entitled to 50%, then of course yes, I'm afraid
2007-02-07 23:13:29
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answer #9
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answered by ladysorrow 7
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Not unless they are secured on the house.
2007-02-07 23:18:14
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answer #10
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answered by Anchor Cranker 4
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