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frontier, it must produce less of one good if it produces more of another.

a. True
b. False



a. True b. False

2007-02-07 18:17:25 · 2 answers · asked by investing1987 3 in Social Science Economics

2 answers

It is true under the following basic microeconomic assumption: the monotonicity (and specifically, a negative slope)of the Production Possibility Frontier.

This monotonicity implies that there is always means that there is a inverse relation between the amount produces of each of the two goods.

2007-02-07 18:27:10 · answer #1 · answered by rby9 2 · 0 0

true because of increasing oppurtunity costs

2007-02-08 02:19:44 · answer #2 · answered by Mouyyad A 2 · 0 0

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