2007-02-07 15:50:53 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
They already did, Hon. It's an illegal product.
2007-02-07 17:21:56 · answer #1 · answered by lizardmama 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends whether you ask a Ginsburg or a Thomas. Congress was granted limited authority under the constitution. One of the main powers given to it was the authority to regulate interstate commerce.
Over the years, this power has extended from regulating those goods that pass between states to regulating anything that has a "substantial" or "cumulative effect" on interstate commerce.
So while common sense may dictate, that such regulation would be left to the states, the broad expansion of the commerce clause during the FDR era eventually led to the creation of the Controlled Substances Act which created the Drug Enforcement Agency and the current scheme of drug regulation.
2007-02-08 00:03:23 · answer #2 · answered by dasvidas 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Legally? NO! It walks over the 10th Ammendment (States Rights). But then, when was the last time the government cared about rights? After all Bush said the the Constitution was "nothing but a G-D piece of paper", remember?
2007-02-08 00:10:44 · answer #3 · answered by vineyardtech 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, yes because it does.
2007-02-07 23:58:33 · answer #4 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋