English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2007-02-07 14:42:39 · 3 answers · asked by lusi x 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Integral (1 / (x^2 ) dx

Note that 1/(x^2) is the same as x^(-2).

We have ways of integrating x^n (for n not equal to -1).

The integral of x^n is x^(n + 1) / (n + 1).

Therefore, the integral of x^(-2) is x^(-1) / (-1), or, with better math etiquette

x^(-1) / (-1) = -1/x

2007-02-07 14:46:36 · answer #1 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

I've never heard the term antiderivative, but if what you want to do is integrate the expression then do the following
rewrite the expression as
X^(-2)dx
integration gives
(-1/2)X^(-1)+C
Where C is an arbitrary constant

2007-02-07 14:48:30 · answer #2 · answered by Mikey 2 · 0 0

-1/x.

2007-02-07 14:49:21 · answer #3 · answered by zee_prime 6 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers