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2007-02-07 04:33:57 · 1 answers · asked by Gopal Paudel 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

I'm afraid you will have to resort to numerical methods
to compute this, because ln(x+1)/(x²+1) does not
have an elementary antiderivative. Its integral
involves the dilogarithm function.
Let's make it a bit easier to work with.
Try integration by parts:
Let
u = ln(x+1) dv = 1/(x²+1) dx
du = 1/(x+1) v = arctan x

Then ∫ ln(x+1) dx/(x²+1) =
ln(x+1) arctan x - ∫ arctan(x) dx/(x+1),
(all with limits 0 to 1)
So we get

π/4 ln 2 - ∫ arctan x dx/(x+1)
I suggest evaluating this last integral by expanding
arctan x in a Taylor series, dividing the result by
x+1 and calculating it to sufficiently many decimal
places.

2007-02-07 05:50:38 · answer #1 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

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