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I took the second derivative but got lost....

Also, help me with this one?
Use the Chain Rule to show that if Ø is measured in degrees then:
d/dØ(sin Ø)=(pi/180)(cos Ø)

thanks!

2007-02-07 03:38:59 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Well, you were on the right track!

It's concave downward wherever the second derivative is negative.

For the second one, let phi be the angle in radians. Then theta is a function of phi (specifically, a constant multiple), and the chain rule kicks in.

2007-02-07 03:51:17 · answer #1 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 1 0

y' = -2x*e^(-x²)

y'' = -2*e^(-x²) + 4x²*e^(-x²) = e^(-x²) * (4x² - 2)
This is < 0 when 4x² - 2 < 0 because e^(-x²) is positive throughout. Solve the inequality and you're set.

Second question: Let f(Ø) = sin(Ø, expressed in degrees).
Then f(Ø) = sin(Ø * pi/180), using the "real" sin function (the argument is in radians).

The chain rule follows:
f'(Ø) = pi/180 * cos(Ø *pi/180) = pi/180 * g(Ø),
where g(x) = cos(x expressed in degrees).

2007-02-07 12:08:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

y=e^(-x^2)==> y´= e^(-x^2) *(-2x) = -2* x*e^(-x^2)

y´´ = -2[e^(-x^2) + x* e^(-x^2)*(-2x)]= -2e^(-x^2)[1-2x^2]

1-2x^2 = 0 x=+- (sqrt2)/
sign of y´´
-infinity___+____-(sqrt2)/2_-_(sqrt2)/2___+___+inf


-(sqrt2)/2
If phi is expressed in degrees it is pi/180 *phi in rad (a)

so sin(phi) = sin(pi/180 phi)

You know that if u is in rad (sin u)´= cos u *(u´) chain rule

so the derivative of sin(pi/180*phi) is cos (pi/180 *phi) *pi/180

but the expression between brackets is phi mesured in degrees

So it´s proved

2007-02-07 12:10:31 · answer #3 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0 0

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