In a two innings match, the team batting second can win by a number of runs if they are made to follow on and end up bowling the opposition out.
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This has happened three times in Tests now, and Australia have been on the receiving end each time. The first occasion was at Sydney in 1894-95, when England won by 10 runs despite being forced to follow on 261 behind. The next occasion was in the famous match at Headingley in 1981, when Ian Botham's heroics with the ball revived England after they followed on, then Bob Willis bowled Australia out as England sneaked home by 18 runs. In another famous match, at Kolkata in 2000-01, it was the batting of VVS Laxman (281) and Rahul Dravid (180), who put on 376 after India followed on 274 behind, who set up a 171-run victory over Australia.
2007-02-06 16:09:40
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answer #1
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answered by usethiscommonsensewisely 2
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When Team 2's innings is prematurely terminated by the weather the result is decided by comparing its actual score with its ‘par score'. Whether Team 2 has won or lost, the difference of its score from the par score is the best measure available of the margin of victory and so it has been decided that the result should be given in terms of this margin in all such cases. Even when a game is not prematurely terminated it is still possible to describe a victory for Team 2 in terms of a margin of runs. When it hits the winning run its score will be ahead of par by a certain margin and there is a good case for expressing the result in terms of this margin of runs in all cases. For instance, if Team 2 scores the winning run off the last ball available, to describe its victory in terms of the wickets it had in hand gives no indication of its narrowness.
2007-02-07 00:19:47
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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there are a number of ways. They could win by the Duckworth-Lewis system. In a one day match, if a team needs 1 run to win and hits a six off the last ball, then I would think they could win by five runs. If in a test match, the team can win by x amounts of runs by bowling out team before they reach the required target.
2007-02-07 02:21:27
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answer #3
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answered by LEEANE G 3
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Presume your question is how a team batting second can win the match by number of runs in a test match. If that is the case
the nswer is given below:
The team batting first is all out for 200 runs. The team batting second scores 550 runs in their first innings. The team which batted first scores 300 runs in their second innings and are all out. Thus the team batted second in the first innings win by
50 runs.
2007-02-07 04:09:31
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answer #4
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answered by vakayil k 7
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By batting first-either by winning toss and electing to bat or team1 winning the tiss and asking team2 to bat first.
2007-02-07 00:15:20
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answer #5
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answered by love all 6
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May be if they have some kind of weather problem
2007-02-07 12:54:10
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answer #6
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answered by Smeet 2
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by good bowling
2007-02-07 05:54:06
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answer #7
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answered by shabaz khan 2
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by D/L method
2007-02-07 00:13:11
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answer #8
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answered by Sunder J 2
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