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2007-02-06 14:59:01 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

oops, meant for all r!=1

2007-02-06 15:02:33 · update #1

2 answers

Actually, the formula you have is correct for all p != +1. (if p=-1, then your integrand simplifies to just x, which is of course (x^2)/2)

For p = 1, the integral of 1/x is ln(x) (natural log of x).

2007-02-06 15:03:30 · answer #1 · answered by Ben 6 · 0 0

The integral of y =1/x is LnIxI

2007-02-07 06:24:39 · answer #2 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0 0

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