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if someone can elaborate more that would be helpful.

thanks

2007-02-06 13:09:48 · 2 answers · asked by Truth 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

2 answers

The term "no-fault" auto insurance is often used loosely to denote any auto insurance program that allows policyholders to recover financial losses from their own insurance company, regardless of fault. But, in its strictest form, no-fault applies only to state laws that both provide for the payment of no-fault first-party benefits and restrict the right to sue, the so called “limited tort” option. The first party benefit coverage is known as personal injury protection (PIP).

Under current no-fault laws, motorists may sue for severe injuries and for pain and suffering only if the case meets certain conditions. These conditions, known as a threshold, relate to the severity of injury. They may be expressed in verbal terms (a descriptive or verbal threshold) or in dollar amounts of medical bills, a monetary threshold. Some laws also include minimum requirements for the days of disability incurred as a result of the accident. Because high threshold no-fault systems restrict litigation, they tend to reduce costs and delays in paying claims. Verbal thresholds eliminate the incentive to inflate claims that may exist when there is a dollar "target" for medical expenses. However, in some states the verbal threshold has been eroded over time by broad judicial interpretation of the verbal threshold language, driving up costs.

2007-02-06 13:12:48 · answer #1 · answered by Heather 3 · 0 0

A "no fault" divorce. It used to be one party had to have broken vows before a divorce was granted. Now you can get a divorce just because.

2007-02-06 13:14:35 · answer #2 · answered by swamp elf 5 · 0 0

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