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Considering an act of parliment has never been passed against commiting murder, how can UK courts accuse suspects of this crime?

2007-02-06 09:27:22 · 2 answers · asked by hades hell 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

2 answers

I find this very hard to believe, that there is no murder statute in Britain.

However, in America, up until the middle of the 19th century, there were "common law" crimes -- that is, crimes that had developed through the same "common law" system that governs civil law -- judge made law that respected precedent. This was declared unconstitutional in America (I believe a violation of due process because people weren't on notice as to what crimes were and what the punishment was) but may still exist in Britain.

There are lots of "laws" that have never been written in statute in common law countries like the US and the UK. Most actions for negligence, torts of assault, battery, etc., have never been written down -- they've existed in the "common law" (contrasted with Civil Law countries that followed large code systems like the Napoleonic code from France and others).

2007-02-06 09:42:36 · answer #1 · answered by Perdendosi 7 · 0 0

You allow murder, you'll find yourself in a place like Irak. What a wonderful world that would be.....

2007-02-06 17:36:12 · answer #2 · answered by robert43041 7 · 0 0

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