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2007-02-06 03:39:27 · 1 answers · asked by sharudazzling 1 in Social Science Economics

1 answers

I would guess it's for the same reasons as elsewhere. That is to say that rural populations are more prone to poverty because there are fewer opportunities and less or weaker social services. Mostly, though, the fact that individuals born in the rural areas won't have the diversity of various opportunities.

~ FR

2007-02-06 08:32:52 · answer #1 · answered by Max 5 · 0 0

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