I have researched this time and time agaign from many websites (and yes Muslims from your own sites(koran) as well) and I keep coming up with the same answer.....he had sexual dreams when the girl was six and consumated when she was nine and he was in his fifty's......if there is evidence against this please post it along with the website.....For the sake of the truth please don't give answers without referencing a website with a quote from the Koran.....it may seem to others you are hiding something!!
2007-02-06 03:02:34 · 2 answers · asked by digger 1 in News & Events ➔ Media & Journalism
no idea
2007-02-06 05:05:25 · answer #1 · answered by traveller 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The charge of pedophilia comes from his marriage to Aisha who was six years old when they married and nine years old when the marriage was consummated. There are some who will argue that Aisha was actually a teenager
You aren't going to find anything in the Koran that mentions this since it all comes from the Haddith and the early biographies.
The best discussion I've found on the issue is at http://www.wikiislam.org/wiki/Aisha's_Age_of_Consummation
The heart of the argument that Mohammed was not a pedophile is captured in this site: http://www.themodernreligion.com/prophet/prophet_aisha.htm
The argument tends to be that since Mohammed had normal sexual relations with adult women, he did not match the pathology associated with pedophilia. To most westerners, other normal sexual relations do not cancel the charge any more than they would in the case of rape.
2007-02-09 09:23:01 · answer #2 · answered by Stephen K 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋