2007-02-06 01:06:14 · 12 answers · asked by Quizmaster 2 in Sports ➔ Cricket
According to me its impossible
2007-02-06 01:16:19 · answer #1 · answered by Mihir Durve 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
YEs it is possible and here is how
The first batsmen hits the second last ball for 3 and on the third run in a run out attempt gets 4 overthrows.
However, the umpire finds out that one run was short (ie, the batsmen did not ground the bat inside the popping crease for one run). Thus the first batsman would be awarded 6 runs and not 7(due to the short run). Still he has reached his hundred
Now the second batsman is on strike(short run does not change the batting order). He hits a six and gets his century. and wins the match too..
HAPPY?
This would take his score to 101 and the match would be tied with the other batsmen on strike with 1 to win off 1 ball. He can then send it over the ropes to complete his century and win the match.
2007-02-06 21:37:03 · answer #2 · answered by the truth 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well I am uncertain if both can score centuries to win the game with only 7 runs needed to win. It can be done with 8 needed. The first batsmen hits the second last ball for 3 and on the third run in a run out attempt gets 4 overthrows. This would take his score to 101 and the match would be tied with the other batsmen on strike with 1 to win off 1 ball. He can then send it over the ropes to complete his century and win the match.
2007-02-06 01:46:19 · answer #3 · answered by hdchandriani 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
There are atleast two where this could happen
1) Of the first ball, the batsman on strike hits the ball and the ball does not go to the boundary : however, the boundaries are long and the batsmen attempt to run seven, and one of those is signalled as a short run ( a case where the batsman has not reached the crease properly ). This means the batsman who was on strike has completed his century, by getting six runs and the other batsman is on strike with one run to get from one ball - and he hits it for a six!
2) Second scenario is similar to (1), just that the batsman who was on strike for the first ball gets runout on the seventh run, and a new batsman joins at the non-strikers end. ( Note that it wasn't specified that both batsmen need to be undefeated).
2007-02-06 03:06:39 · answer #4 · answered by Prasanna S 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
where there is a will there is a way
it is quit easy first Batsmen hits it and takes three and a over throw to one and again they take over throw three in that one is short run so there is one run required and last ball batsmen hits six over or when the play runs for the second over throw theed run the batsmen completed 100 runs gets run out and last bowls will be hit to six
there are many ways then this which i know
2007-02-06 02:08:42 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
With 4 boo. trmp. they can run 8 so. and go to the wicket. This would force the bowler to pitch outside on the second run, and the wing. cent. would then occur, winning the match! Booya!
2007-02-06 01:14:22 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
They each get a ten run bonus for pointing out that this is a pointless and annoying question, designed to show us how clever you are, and not an attempt to add anything to anyones knowledge or to stimulate intelligent discourse.
2007-02-06 11:04:24 · answer #7 · answered by bonesetter 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
They both get the ball out of the boundry getting 6
2007-02-06 01:14:11 · answer #8 · answered by mary L 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋
according to me it si simply impossible unless a a run is taken on a no ball or overthrows has been commited
2007-02-06 02:11:18 · answer #9 · answered by answerer 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
well, one of them mite hv hit a four with no ball so 5, n wud hv tuk a run in the next ball, and he gets his century and then the other person would hv bet a six, and wud hv completed his century too.
howzatt??????????????????????????????????????????????
hey, i m sure my answer is correct award me with the 10 dear.
2007-02-06 03:53:33 · answer #10 · answered by Roopa R 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋