I'm not sure if I'm doing it right.. I think it's 45 degrees and pie over 4.. but not sure
2007-02-05 11:49:12 · 10 answers · asked by whyemsworld 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
So you want to solve
cos^(-1)(1)
Which is (almost) equivalent to the solution to
cos(x) = 1, for x in between 0 and pi.
With that said, cos(x) is equal to 1 at the point 0.
Therefore, x = 0.
2007-02-05 11:53:58 · answer #1 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The inverse cosines of 1 are 0 + 2nπ radians or 0 + 720n degrees.
It is the tangent of 45 degrees that equals 1.
2007-02-05 11:59:38 · answer #2 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the cosine of 1 is 0, but the inverse would be the secant, which is 1/cos, and 1/0 is undefined. Therefore the inverse cosine of 1 is undefined.
but if you are talking about the inverse cosine of a 1 degree angle, then the whole thing is a lot harder, but i doubt this is the case.
hope i am right :)
2007-02-05 12:01:07 · answer #3 · answered by Robert G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
inverse cosine means the angle where cosine = the given number.
the cosine = 1 for 0 and any multiple of 360 degrees
in radians this is 0 and any multiple of 2pi (2 pi radians = 360 deg)
2007-02-05 11:56:08 · answer #4 · answered by bignose68 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
One angle whose cosine is 1 is 0 degrees, which is also zero radians.
2007-02-05 11:51:01 · answer #5 · answered by firefly 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nope, 0 degrees, 0 radians.
2007-02-05 11:51:36 · answer #6 · answered by DiphallusTyranus 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
tan^-1(1) is 45 degree.....
cos^-1(1) is zero
2007-02-05 11:54:35 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is zero degrees and zero radians.
2007-02-05 11:53:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You won't, (arccos(-7/8) / Pi)) is an irrational number.
2016-05-24 20:00:28 · answer #9 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
zero for both
2007-02-05 11:52:51 · answer #10 · answered by F. J 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋